Hi,
Based on the L1 rule that says that "the alien must have been employed abroad by the qualifying foreign employer for one continuous year within the three years immediately preceding his/her admission into the U.S.", I have a doubt that may sound a bit stupid, but I couldn't find an answer to it anywhere.
Does that mean that I have the right to apply for an L1 visa if I worked for the company in another country continuously for 2 years, for example, and left 6 months ago? That is, if I'm not employed anymore by the company, but I have worked for the company for at least one continuous year in the recent past, and got a job offer from the company branch/HQ in the US, is it still valid to apply?
I know it sounds strange, but I couldn't find any text that explicitly says that I have to be currently employed by the company in order to apply, and the statement about the length of employment is at least ambiguous.
Thanks.
Based on the L1 rule that says that "the alien must have been employed abroad by the qualifying foreign employer for one continuous year within the three years immediately preceding his/her admission into the U.S.", I have a doubt that may sound a bit stupid, but I couldn't find an answer to it anywhere.
Does that mean that I have the right to apply for an L1 visa if I worked for the company in another country continuously for 2 years, for example, and left 6 months ago? That is, if I'm not employed anymore by the company, but I have worked for the company for at least one continuous year in the recent past, and got a job offer from the company branch/HQ in the US, is it still valid to apply?
I know it sounds strange, but I couldn't find any text that explicitly says that I have to be currently employed by the company in order to apply, and the statement about the length of employment is at least ambiguous.
Thanks.
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